October 25, 2008

Pre-exist? "Firstborn Of Every Creature" - Part IV

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In Colossians 1:15 Yeshua is described as "the firstborn of every creature." Many Trinitarians use this verse to support their claim that Yeshua existed before all others.

If this claim were to be true then Scripture would contradict each other? And if Yeshua was literally the "firstborn" as implied by the Trinitarian theory, how can the Bible claim that he is the "son of Abraham and David" (Matthew 1:1)? And consider the statement itself: "FirstBorn of every creature." Does not that demand a mother? Who was the mother who gave birth to him before all others?

These difficulties are solved, and the passage simply and beautifully explained, when the Bible doctrine of the "firstborn" is understood. In the Bible, "firstborn" is a legal term, describing pre-eminence of position or status, though not necessarily of birth. There were special privileges granted the legal firstborn in a family. He represented his father, he acted as a priest, he received a double portion of the family inheritance (see Deuteronomy 21:17).

The Torah provided that the eldest son of a family could forfeit his position as legal firstborn, if guilty of misconduct or inability to perform the necessary duties, and be supplanted by a younger son. In other words, it was not necessary for Yeshua to be the first of G-d's creation to be eligible for the position of legal firstborn.

For example, consider 1 Chronicles 5:1:

"Reuben the firstborn of Israel . . . but forasmuch as he defiled his father's bed, his birthright was given unto the sons of Joseph, and the genealogy is not to be reckoned after the birthright!"
Reuben's lewd conduct earned the rebuke of his father, who deposed him from his legal status of firstborn, and gave the position to a much younger son: Joseph.

Other examples could be multiplied. Ephraim was blessed as firstborn by Jacob, even though he was younger than Manasseh his brother (Genesis 48:14-19), and G-d endorsed the appointment by describing Ephraim as "His firstborn" (Jeremiah 31:9). Jacob was given the birthright over his older brother Esau (Genesis 25:32-34).

This prohibition shows that a legal firstborn could be a younger son, and therefore has a great bearing on the interpretation of Colossians 1:15.

The Bible refers to two notable "sons of G-d": Adam and Yeshua (see Luke 3:38). The "first Adam" forfeited the right of inheritance, the position of firstborn of the human race, because of sin; but G-d raised up a younger Son (called in 1 Cor. 15:45 "the last Adam") whose complete obedience to the will of his Father proved him worthy of the preeminence. He was thus elevated to the position of firstborn of the human race, which means that he receives "a double portion of the inheritance," and that he acts as priest in the family of YHVH. Yeshua is the firstborn, not by fact of longevity but by virtue of his moral excellence.

Pre-exist? "Descended From Heaven" - Part III

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John 6:38, “For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of the Him who sent me.”

"This is a hard saying, who can understand it?" asked the disciples (v.60). It was followed by one even more difficult: "What and if ye shall see the Son of Man ascend up where he was before?" So ridiculous did this sound to some of Yeshua' disciples that they left him (v.66). And that conclusively proves that they knew nothing of the theory of a pre-existent Messiah.

So what was meant by these difficult sayings? The meaning was similar to the story of manna falling from heaven in the wilderness. Note, manna is described as "bread from heaven" (John 6:32), and the Yeshua likened himself to similar to manna coming from heaven or "bread from heaven" (vv. 32-33). Does this description mean that the manna was manufactured in heaven, at the dwelling place of G-d, and wafted down in a thick cloud every night through the illimitable spaces above to the wilderness below? Or did G-d send His spirit to earth, and there manufacture it? Undoubtedly the latter, as any reasonable person will concede.

Pre-exist? Foundation of the World - Part II

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Trinitarians use 1 Peter 1:20 to prove their belief that Yeshua exist before the creation of the world: “For he was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you”.

Also, John describes him as "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world" (Rev. 13:8).
Can it be said that Yeshua "slain from the foundation of the world"? Yes, in the sense he was our Yom Kippur sacrifices but literally as Trinitarians like us to believe, no.

Note the story of Isaac, before his conception Isaac was no more than a thought of his father (and of G-d). He was the promised son! In a comparable way Yeshua was promised by the prophetic word. He is described as the Lamb foreknown, not as the Lamb pre-existing. This again is similar what 1 Pet. 1:20 is saying: “For he was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you”.

G-d projected that Yeshua would enter the world and die in place of mankind for their sins. He would be "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world" (Revelation 13:8). This meant that Yeshua was prophesied to die at a particular time, in a certain spot, and by a select group of people, and it was all in the strategy devised by G-d from the beginning.

Did Yeshua Pre-exist? Intro - Part I

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There are many confusing statements in scriptures that lead people to believe that Yeshua Pre-existed. One controversy subject is the "creation" terminology in John 1. People see "in the beginning" and they think that it must refer to Gen 1:1 because of the "light" and "darkness" and "all things" language in the subsequent verses. The "creation" language is just an allusion to Genesis as one can see below similar wordings are used elsewhere.

John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the word . . ."
Mark 1:1 - "The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ . . ."
I John 1:1 "That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; 2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)".

Nowhere is it suggested that he existed before his birth. Consider the record of his early childhood:

"Yeshua increased in wisdom, and stature, and in favor with God and man" (Luke 2:52).
How can these words possibly apply to a pre-existent angel, or the second person of a Triune G-d? Could such a one increase in wisdom and in favor with G-d? Assuming the impossible were true, and Yeshua pre-existed as an angel, on what grounds could it be said that he increased in favor with G-d merely because in his new state he grew from a baby to a youth!

Even if Yeshua pre-existed, he would have to divest himself of all previous identity, lose all his former knowledge, power and standing with G-d, and had to establish this all again! What for? What would this accomplish? Is such belief logical?

If Christ pre-existed, how could he be described as the "seed of the woman"?Abraham was taught: "In thy seed shall all nations be blessed" (Genesis 22:18).

Would Abraham imagine that his seed (son) existed before he did? Of course not! Where is there any evidence in Genesis that Yeshua was then living in any form? There is none! Moses, Israel's law-giver and leader, who typified the coming Law-giver and Leader (Yeshua) told the Israelite:
"The Lord thy God will raise up unto Thee a Prophet FROM THE MIDST OF THEE, OF THY BRETHREN, LIKE UNTO ME; unto him ye shall hearken" (Deuteronomy 18:5).

In the New Testament, Peter quoted those very words and applied them to Yeshua Christ (Acts 3:22; 7:37), and Paul taught: "Therefore it behooved him to be made like unto his brethren . . . ." (Hebrews 2:17).

Can the words of Moses above apply to a pre-existent angel? Could such a one be truthfully described as "raised up from the midst of thee," "of thy brethren, like unto Moses"?

Consider also the preaching of the Apostles. Did they proclaim belief in a pre-existent angel who had assumed human form? They did not. Listen to Peter's preaching: "David . . . being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the FRUIT OF HIS LOINS, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne" (Acts 2:30).

Whom did David believe would sit upon his throne? An angel who was already in existence? No; he believed the one who would reign there would be "the fruit of his loins," that is, a descendant. The boy born of Mary was a descendant of David, not a pre-existent angel assuming human form!

October 24, 2008

Is It A Sin To Make Yeshua YHVH?

By URI MARCUS

The Shema is the basic credo of the Jew, his first declaration of G-d's Unity and the last words to leave his mouth when he passes from this world. Now, think for a moment. If G-d had wanted to articulate in the Torah the idea that there is only ONE G-d, and that there is NO other, that there is no one who shares this unique distinction with Him... and if G-d wanted to dispel any future notion or concept or doctrine which would arise, like the Trinity, and have us consider it antithetical to the Torah, what would you need to see in the Tenach to convince you of that? What words would He use so that there would be no possibility for error? What phrase could He have selected so that there would be no chance of misunderstanding or misinterpreting of the text? What should G-d have put there so that anyone who would read the Torah, through-out time, would fully accept that there cannot be any other part of G-d who shares the essence of what He is, and that He is alone, and indivisible? Would these words convince you?

" See now that I myself am He! There is no god besides me." (Deut 32:39).

or...

"G-d is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that He should change His mind." (Numbers 23:19).

or...

So the Trinitarians say, "Not to worry... I don't believe in three gods. I only believe in ONE G-d, but He has three different manifestations, or faces...right? Now anyone who knows a bit of Hebrew is going to have a problem with that, because what does the Exodus passage say IN HEBREW...?

"Lo YiheYay Lecha Elohim Acherim Al Panai."

The last two words there are "Al Panai," and they do not mean "Before Me" As render in the English translation. In order to say, "Before me," the text would use the word "Lifanai," or "Mi-Lifanai" as it does in at least 360 other occurrences in the Torah, Gen 6:13, and 4:16 being two examples. In fact, the phrase "Al Panai" occurs about 70 times in the Torah, but is NEVER translated in English as "Before Me," EXCEPT in these two passages Exodus 20:3 and Deut. 5:7. A classic example is found in the second verse of the Bible:

The earth was unformed and void, darkness was on upon the face of (Al Panei) the deep, and the Spirit of G-d hovered upon the face of (Al Panei) the water. Gen 1:2.

Likewise, "Before Me" in English, occurs about 14 times in the Torah, and the corresponding Hebrew Text never reads "Al Panai," EXCEPT in these two passages. What does this tell us? Somebody has an agenda in English, and they want to hide what the text is really saying! " Al Panai" literally means "On (or upon) My Face." The word for "face" in Hebrew is "Panim." "Panai" is "My Face." "Al Panai" is "Upon My Face." "Al Panei" is the non-possessive form, or just "upon the face of..."

G-d is instructing the Jewish People in the SECOND COMMANDMENT, right after the first commandment to Believe in YHVH, that they are forbidden to PLACE ANY OTHER god UPON HIS FACE. The same teaching occurs in connection with making cast "images" of other gods, and serving them. The clearest example is the golden calf. In at least two places, the Torah commands us not to serve any god who has a mask or a face upon him. The word for a mask in Hebrew is "maseycha." The gas masks, for instance, which we all donned when the missiles from Sadam were raining on Israel back in '91, are called "maseychot gaz."

Exodus 34:17 says in Hebrew, " Do not make for yourselves masked gods."

A second example is Lev 19:4, which presents the commandment in even clearer terms.

" Do not turn towards the false gods (or idols) and masked gods you shall not bring about for yourselves. I am the L-RD your G-d."

Now, go to the Internet and do a search on the definition of the "Trinity." Go to any church you like, or to any theologian or commentator. The Trinitarian Leaders are going to tell you, in describing who Yeshua is, and how He fits into the Trinitarian formula.

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Here are some samples seen on the internet:

"God is three persons. He has three faces, Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit.God is revealed as a Holy Trinity. Three faces - yet only one God. God, the father and Creator, Jesus, the son who died and rose again, the Holy Spirit, our guide and comforter, yet, together, one God, the only G-d.

"Creator, Redeemer, Comforter. Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Three faces of God, not three gods. Three expressions of God, but still only one God. One triune God."

"The concept of the Trinity is also an important difference, not three gods but three faces of God; Father, Son and Holy Sprit".

"To speak of the three faces of God, is simply to say that there are three very important ways in which G-d has been revealed to us. The second "Mask", or face of God, is the way in which God is made known to us in Jesus of Nazareth. Do you believe that Jesus was God?” Masks? Faces?
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The only thing this Jew is going to do when he hears nonsense like all of the above, is leave skid marks. No prophet in Tanach ever remained silent on this foundational teaching. They were unwavering in their monotheism which they tirelessly preached. Over and over again, the Hebrew Bible declared with deliberate clarity that the Almighty alone is G-d, and THERE IS NO OTHER.

YHVH and Yeshua - One and the Same Person?

Are they One and the Same Person?
by Voy Wilks 7/15/92

Mt.20:23 - Father And Son - two persons.
Jn.3:16 - For Yahweh so loved the world that He gave, not Himself, but His Son.
Jn.3:17 - Yahweh sent His Son into the world. Did Yahweh send Himself?
Jn.5:37 - You have not heard or seen the Father (but they had seen and heard the Son) two different persons.
Jn.5:37 - There are TWO witnesses - (1) the Father and (2) the Son (two persons).
Jn.5:43 - Yeshua came in the Father's name, but they did not receive him.
Jn.8:18 - There are TWO witnesses; the Father and the Son (two persons).
Jn.8:19 - You know neither me nor my Father (two persons).
Jn.10:29 - The Father is greater than all (others).
Jn.12:28 - Yeshua said, "Father, glorify thy Name." A voice answered. Was it Yeshua answering himself?
Jn.14:1 - You believe in Yahweh, believe ALSO in me (two persons).
Jn.14:25 - My words are not mine, but His who sent me (two persons: sender/sent).
Jn.14:28 - My FATHER is greater than I - truly (two persons; Father & Son).
Jn.15:1 - I am the vine. My FATHER is the vine dresser; two different parties.
Jn.15:9 - The Father loved me, so I haved loved you (three parties; Father, Son & disciples).
Jn.15:10 - If you love me you will keep my commandments just as I have kept my Father's commandments.
Jn.15:24 - They hated BOTH me AND my Father (two persons).
Jn.16:3 - You have not known the Father nor me (two parties; Father & Son).
Jn.16:28 - I came down from the Father and go to the Father. Did Yeshua go to himself?
Jn.16:32 - I am not alone, for the Father is with me (two persons).
Jn.17:1 - Yeshua prayed to the Father. Did he pray to himself?
Jn.17:3 - ETERNAL LIFE is knowing you, the ONLY TRUE EL, AND Yeshua Messiah whom you sent. Do we want eternal life? If so, believe in the Father and the Son (two persons).
Jn.17:4 - I glorified you on earth, and finished the work you gave me to do (the Boss & the workman).
Jn.17:5 - Now Father, glorify me. Two parties; one is superior, one inferior).
Jn.17:11 - Father, keep my disciples, that they may be ONE AS WE ARE ONE. Comment: Yeshua and his Father were "one" just as the 12 Apostles should be "one;" that is, "one in purpose and doctrine.
Jn.17:18 - As YOU sent ME, so I send them into the world. Three parties: You, me, and them.
Jn.17:21 - That they may all be one in US; you and I. Us equals two or more persons.
Jn.17:22 - That the Apostles may be one as WE are ONE. Were the Apostles only one person, rather than 12 persons? Just as the Apostles were 12 individual persons, but with one goal, so the Heavenly Father and His Son were two individual persons with one goal.
Acts 2:24* - Here we have TWO persons: One ALIVE, one DEAD. Yeshua, being dead, could not raise himself. Who did? Yahweh raised him from the grave - from death (Acts 3:14,15).
Acts 2:27 - Yeshua's soul was not left in hell; it too was raised from hell, from the grave, from the dead (vs.32). By whom? By the power of Yahweh (two persons are referred to here).
Rom.1:3 - Declared to be the Son of Yahweh, ... by his resurrection from the dead (two persons). Gal.1:1 - Yahweh (the Father) raised Yahshua (the Son) from the dead. Yeshua was subject to death, but his Father was not subject to death.
Eph.6:23 - Peace to all from Yahweh the Father AND from Yeshua. Two separate and distinct persons.
Ph.1:2 - Grace from Yahweh our Father AND from Yeshua Messiah. Two persons.
Col.1:1 - Paul an Apostle of Yeshua Messiah by the will of Yahweh (three persons: Paul, Yahweh, & Yeshua).
1 Th.1:1 - Peace from Yahweh the Father AND the Savior Yeshua (two persons; Father and Son).
2 Th.1:2 - Grace and peace from Yahweh the Father AND from Yeshua the Messiah (two persons).
1 Tim.1:1 - Paul, an Apostle of Yeshua by command of Yahweh AND Yeshua Messiah (Two persons).
1 Tim.1:2 - Grace, mercy and peace from Yahweh the Father, AND from Yeshua the Messiah.
2 Tim.1:2 - Grace and peace from Yahweh the Father AND from Yeshua our Savior.
Titus 1:1 - Paul, a servant of Yahweh, AND an Apostle of Yeshua.
Phil.3 - Grace to you, and peace (1) from Yahweh our Father AND (2) from Yeshua Messiah.
Heb.1:1 - Yahweh in times past spoke through the prophets, but in these last days spoke to us by His Son.
Ja.1:1 - James, a servant of (1) Yahweh, and (2) Yahshua.
1 Pe.1:3 - Blessed be the El and Father of our Savior, Yeshua.
2 Pe.1:2 - Grace to you through the knowledge of Yahweh, AND of Yeshua Messiah (two parties).
1 Jn.1:3 - Our fellowship is with the Father, AND with His Son Yeshua the Messiah.
1 Jn.2:1 - If anyone sins, we have an advocate with the Father, Yeshua the Messiah (Father Yahweh & advocate Yeshua (two persons).
2 Jn.9 - Whoever abides in the doctrine of Messiah has BOTH the Father AND the Son.
Jude 1 - Yahweh the Father, AND Yeshua Messiah (two persons).
Jude 4 - Some deny the only Yahweh, AND our Savior Yeshua the Messiah (two persons).
Rev.1:1* - The revelation which Yahweh gave to Himself. No. No. Yahweh did not give the revelation to himself, but to His Son Yahshua the Messiah.
Rev.1:4* - A salutation from two persons: (1) Him who is, who was, and is to come (the eternal Yahweh); And from Yeshua Messiah the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, etc.(vs.5).
Rev.1:9* - The word of Yahweh and the testimony of Yeshua: Two persons.
Rev.2:8* - The words of him who died (Yahshua). It is impossible for the Father to die, therefore Yeshua is not one and the same person as the Father.
Rev.2:26 - He who overcomes, I (Yeshua) will give power over the nations, even as I myself received power from my Father (vs.27). Two persons: The lesser receives power from the other.
Rev.3:5 - Two persons: one of which will confess our names before the other. Who are these two? Father Yahweh and Son Yeshua.
Rev.3:12* - He who overcomes, I (Yeshua,Vs.11) will make him a pillar in the temple of MY ELOAH; and write on him the name of MY ELOAH; etc. Yeshua's El was someone other than himself.
Rev.3:14 - The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of El's creation. Two persons spoken of: (1) El the Creator, and (2) the one who was created - the True Witness (Yeshua).
Rev.3:21 - Overcomers will sit with me (Yeshua) in my throne, as I overcame and sit with my Father in His throne. Two thrones and two persons are spoken of: (1) the Father and His throne, and (2) the Son and his throne.
Rev.4:2-11 - He who sat upon the throne (Rev.4:2,3,9,10; 5:1,7; 19:4; 20:11; 21:5), was Yahweh, the Almighty El. Yeshua, the Lion of the tribe of Judah, the Root of David, the Lamb who was slain, and who opened the seven seals (Rev.5:2-10); was not Yahweh. He stood before the throne on which the Father (Yahweh) sat: two persons.
Rev.5:11-13 - Praises were given to (1) Him who sits on the throne, and (2) the Lamb who was slain.
Rev.6:16 - Hide us from (1) Him who sits on the throne, and (2) the wrath of the Lamb: Two persons.
Rev.7:9,10 - Salvation belongs to our El, and to the Lamb: Two persons.
Rev.7:17 - The Lamb, now on the throne, on his Father's right hand (Heb.1:3), will be their shepherd; and Yahweh will wipe away all tears: Two persons.
Rev.11:15 - The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Yahweh, and of His Messiah: two persons.
Rev.12:17 - Those who keep the commandments of Yahweh (first person), and who bear testimony of Yeshua (second person).
Rev.14:1,4 - These have the Father's Name written in their foreheads (Greek - Father and Son's name), and are the firstfruits to Yahweh AND the Lamb.
Rev.14:12 - Those who keep the commandments of Yahweh AND the faith of Yeshua: two persons.
Rev.15:3* - Three separate persons are named here: Yahweh, the Lamb, and Moses. If Moss and Yahweh are not one and the same persons, why should we think the Lamb and Yahweh are one and the same person?
Rev.19:4-7 - Four parties are named here: Yahweh the Almighty, The Lamb (Yeshua, the bridegroom), the bride of Messiah, a great multitude.
Rev.20:6 - They will be priests (1) of Yahweh and (2) of the Messiah
Rev.21:9,10 - Three parties: Yahweh, the Lamb, and the bride.
Rev.21:22 - Two parties are named: Yahweh and the Lamb. These are the temple in the New Jerusalem.
Rev.22:1 - The river of life flows from the throne of Yahweh AND of the Lamb (two persons).
Rev.22:3 - No more curse will be there for the throne of Yahweh And of the Lamb will be in the city: two persons.

October 23, 2008

Does G-d Have To Die To Redeem Israel?

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Some believers use Roman 7:1-4 to assert that G-d died (which is impossible) to free Israel so she can remarry her first husband again.

Romans 7:1-4 "Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Messiah; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto YHVH."

First we must note that context of Romans 7:1-4 concerns our death to the law so that we can marry ANOTHER, not that we can remarry the same husband.

The Torah states, (Deut 24) that if a man marries a wife then later divorces her, and if she marries another, he can never remarry her, but if she never remarries another then He may again later remarry her.

It is true, YHVH divorced Israel. It is also true she went off to be with others. Whether she remarried is a valid question. Did she? Or was she held in bondage, like a captive slave girl? If Israel didn't remarry, then G-d can undo the bill of divorcement, without breaking his own law. Look at the case of King David; his son Absolom raped his concubines. When David returned to power, he never slept with those concubines again. Israel being defiled with others, the Separated (Holy) G-d of Israel wouldn't take her to himself again. Note, it was Israel that was defiled, not YHVH. G-d would never let Israel defile his great Name.

It was prophesied that G-d would remarry Israel. How could he do this without breaking his own Law? The Law also says that death ends a covenant. If it was possible for G-d to die and and resurrect; he could certainly remarry Israel. But ask yourself. How would this cleanse and purify Israel from her past paramours and adulteries? It would not. But if Israel died and was resurrected, she would be clean and pure again, for at death all is forgiven and forgotten. A reborn Israel would be pure enough for the Almighty to marry. Therefore, it really makes no logical sense for G-d to be born into flesh so he could die, resurrect, and remarry a defiled Israel.

Isaiah 9:6 - "His Name Is Called" Eternal Father

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Isaiah 9:6 doesn't say "His Name will be" but "His Name is called", Wonderful Counsellor, Mighty Ayil, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace. These are all titles, not names. There are many names in the Bible with the same Hebrew construction as in this verse. Each one that has “father” means the "father of (something)." For example, Abishua mans "father of plenty." Secondly the KJV does injustice to the translation of the phrase “Eternal father”. Isaiah 9:6 should be translated as "Father of eternity"; thus we find that the KJV reversed the sequence making the true meaning harder to discern.

Yeshua is the Father of Eternity because eternal life comes to us through him. And so it is written in Heb.5:9, "And being made perfect, he became the author (or father) of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;"

Another obvious point about Is.9:6 is that it says "His NAME shall be called..."- NOT- "he IS the Mighty G-d etc.."? Also note, Yeshua said, "I have come in my FATHER'S NAME" and in John 14:28, he says “Father is greater than I,'" meaning he himself admits he is NOT the Heavenly Father.

Let "US" Make Man In "OUR" Image.

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Many Trinitarians use the infamous “us” and “our” in the Genesis account to support their claim that Yeshua existed along side YHVH during the creation process. Obviously, I do not believe this theory and I think scripture makes it clear that YHVH alone created all things as evidence will show below. Now, I will admit that there is a mystery in the creation account and like any other person, I do not have all the answers, but I think I can come up with at least two theories who was the “us” in the Genesis accord. First, let’s see what scripture says:

Gen 1:26 Then God said, “Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth and over all the creatures that move along the ground.”

Now read one verse later, verse 27, we find that the word for “And HE created" to be singular, NOT plural as a Trinitarian might have expected. In other words, the text does NOT say, "And THEY created but HE (singular) created. Please note Gen 1:27

“So G-d created man in his own image, in the image of G-d HE created him; male and female HE created them.”

Furthermore G-d said HE ALONE created the heavens, all their host, the earth, the seas, and all things therein. Nowhere does it say someone else was with him.

“Thou, even thou, art YHVH ALONE; thou hast made heaven, the heaven of heavens, with all their host, the earth, and all things that are therein, the seas, and all that is therein, and thou preservest them all; and the host of heaven worshippeth thee.” (Nehemiah 9:6)

The first possible explanation of the use of the word “us” in the Genesis account is that WISDOM was with YHVH during his creation process. Notice scripture says that G-d’s wisdom was “from the beginning” (Prov. 8:1-23) -- And continues in Proverbs 8:29 and 30 as saying: “…when He marked out the foundations of the earth, I [wisdom] was the craftsman at His side.”

The second supporting theory would be that the US and OUR be none other than the Heavens and the Earth, for from both did G-d take in order to create man. His flesh He created from the dust of the earth, and for his soul, G-d took from elements found only in the realm of G-d's Heaven, even from the breath of the Almighty. For this reason, G-d says, "Let US, both celestial elements and terrestrial give their portion in the creation of man. In the image of both, and in the likeness of both, shall he be created." For this is what sets man apart from the rest of creation. In many places G-d actually calls upon Heaven and the Earth to be a witness against Israel, as if Heaven and the earth were human beings who could take the stand and provide testimony. Note the following passages:

Deuteronomy 4:26 I call on the Heavens and the Earth to witness against you today that you will quickly disappear from the Land that you are crossing the Jordon to possess. You will not prolong your days there but will be completely destroyed."

Deuteronomy 30:19 "I call on heaven and earth to witness against you today that I have presented you with life and death, the blessing and the curse. Therefore, choose life, so that you will live, you and your descendants,"

Deuteronomy 31:28 "Assemble for me all the leaders of your tribes and your officials, so that I can say these things in their hearing, calling heaven and earth to witness against them -"

Before Abraham Was, I AM

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Many Trinitarian believers use Yeshua's "I AM" statement to justify that he pre-existed before he was physically born unto the world, meaning if one can prove that Yeshua pre-existed they can also support the claim that he was more than a man and prehaps deity himself.

When Yeshua said, "before Abraham was, I am" in John 8:58, he was merely emphazing his Messianic claim. In other words, Yeshua was simply stating the it was 'he' who was chosen by Father's plan to live out the Messianic atonement work. The point is not that Yeshua "pre-existed" before Abraham, but that Yeshua was more important than Abraham, who we know was regarded by the Jews to be their "father." In other words, YHVH's divine plan was far greater than Abraham's. When Yeshua told the Pharisees that "Abraham rejoiced to see my day" he was saying that he is the one that was to be greater than Abraham because he would fulfilled the covenant Abraham sought and rejoiced to see accomplished.

Alpha and Omega, The First and The Last-Part II

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I am the FIRST and the LAST, the BEGINNING and the END.

We know that Yeshua said this; we know that it is no contradiction for him to call himself the "last" because he will live forever. We know it is no contradiction for him to call himself the "end" because he is the END RESULT of having kept his Father's laws perfectly. In Romans 10:4 we read --

Christ is the end (ultimate goal –result) of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

He says something similar in Revelation 22:13, as he calls Himself the "LAST". We know he said this because he was resurrected to eternal life and will never die again. He also calls himself the "END" because he is the END PRODUCT -- the ultimate result of the law of YHVH.

But what did he mean when he called himself the "FIRST" in Revelation 22:13? Did he mean that he was the first being to ever exist or that he was the everlasting Father, or that he pre-existed? Many are led to believe this, but if you let scripture interpret scripture, the meaning would be very clear. Note, Revelation 1:5:

And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth...

So therefore, when Yeshua called himself the "FIRST" in Revelation 22:13, he was not referring to "pre-existence" at all! Yeshua simply meant that he was the first begotten of the dead, which means that he was THE FIRST TO BE RAISED FROM THE DEAD! Because Yeshua is now raised from the dead, he is now the FIRST among YHVH's incorruptible creation.

What, then, did he mean when he called himself the "BEGINNING" in the same verse? Does this imply that he was in the beginning with YHVH as many are led to believe? The answer to these questions is found in Revelation 3:14, which says --

And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God [YHVH]:

In this scripture Yeshua calls himself the "beginning of the creation of G-d [YHVH]." Meaning, he was ONCE created with a corruptible flesh like Adam, but NOW he is the END RESULT, meaning he is the FIRST to be resurrected as a NEW creation of an incorruptible being! Paul says in I Corinthians 15:53:

For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.

Yeshua the Messiah being the FIRST to be raised from the dead to eternal life is NOW in the FULL IMAGE of YHVH; he is PERFECTED. He has become the First, or the Beginning AMONG MEN to reach the state of PERFECT, completed, whole creation, as YHVH's plan for mankind is. Therefore, he was NOT referring to pre-existence in calling himself the "Beginning" in Revelation 22:13. Yeshua the Messiah simply means that HE was the "Beginning" -- the FIRST PERFECTED of YHVH's whole creation plan for mankind.

Source: Hope of Israel Ministries

Alpha and Omega, The First and The Last - Part I

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The Alpha and Omega argument to support Yeshua being deity is surprisingly a weak argument, but nevertheless it must be addressed and the truth be exposed.

The phrase "the Alpha and the Omega" can be found FOUR TIMES in the King James Version of the Bible. However, this phrase should ONLY have been included TWO TIMES! Why? Because it was ADDED to these scriptures in order to infer that it was also Yeshua who was "the Alpha and the Omega" -- and not just YHVH the Father! It was an error crept into the 1611 King James Version of the Bible! The phrase "the Alpha and the Omega" is first found written in Revelation 1:8 in the King James Version. In this verse it refers to the Father YHVH. Note:

I am the ALPHA and the OMEGA, the Beginning and the End," says the Lord, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.

This verse couldn't be any more clearer -- this is the Father YHVH speaking about Himself.

Then, in Revelation 1:11 (KJV), the phrase "the Alpha and the Omega" is again found saying,

"I am the ALPHA and the OMEGA, the First and the Last," and, "What you see, write in a book and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia: to Ephesus, to Smyrna, to Pergamos, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea" (NKJV).

After the apostle John heard this being spoken, he turned around to see WHO said it (verse 12) -- but saw Yeshua the Messiah (verses 13-17). However, Yeshua here reassures John that he was NOT the Alpha and the Omega! We can see this for ourselves in Revelation 1:17-18, which states,

“And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. But he laid his right hand on me, saying to me, "Do not be afraid; I AM THE FIRST AND THE LAST. I am he who lives and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, Amen. And I have the keys of Hades and of Death."

In other words, Yeshua told John NOT to be afraid, for HE WAS NOT THE ALPHA AND THE OMEGA! Yeshua simply did NOT identify himself by that title! This is born out in other versions of the New Testament where the phrase "the Alpha and the Omega" in Revelation 1:11 is not even included -- notice!

The other scripture in which the phrase "the Alpha and the Omega" was ADDED -- in order to foist upon the unwary reader the theory that Yeshua was also "the Alpha and the Omega"! This scripture is Revelation 22:13. And Revelation 22:16 undeniably states that these are Yeshua's words,

I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last (NKJV)

The Bible dictionary Insight on the Scriptures states: “The additional occurrence of this phrase in the King James rendering of Revelation 1:11, however, does not appear in some of the oldest Greek manuscripts, including the Alexandrine, Sinaitic, and Codex Ephraemi rescriptus. It is, therefore, omitted in many modern translations.” Additionally, the ancient Alexandrian (NU) and the Vatican (M) texts also leave out the phrase "the Alpha and the Omega."

It should also be noted that virtually all modern translations do NOT include in Rev 1:11 the following words that are in the KJV version of that verse: "Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and," nor is it mentioned, even as a footnote, in any modern translation or in Bruce Metzger's definitive A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Second Edition (New York: United Bible Societies, 1994, phone: 800-322-4253). He states,

"The New King James Version [NKJV] does include this wording; but the NKJV is not a modern translation; it is only a modern-English rewording of the the original KJV, minus the Aprocrypha, since the Aprocrypha was in the original KJV."

Now, you might ask, what DIFFERENCE does it make that this phrase was added to this scripture (Revelation 22:13) -- and also to Revelation 1:11? It makes a HUGE difference because it leads people to erroneously believe that Yeshua the Messiah pre-existed in the godhead before his human birth; because NEVER BEFORE has there been a true understanding of what the Father YHVH actually said when He identified Himself as "the ALPHA AND THE OMEGA"!

Source: Hope of Israel Ministries
Triumph Prophetic Ministries
Bibletexts.com

October 22, 2008

Atonement: Why Yeshua Must Be Fully Human.

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Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

Aside from the fact that G-d cannot die, the Scriptures are clear that the absolute humanity of Messiah selfless act predicates our atonement. For example, In Isaiah the prophet states more than once that G-d is the only saviour but in other places such as II Peter 1:1 we find that Yeshua is our Saviour. Does this prove that Yeshua is G-d or does it merely say that G-d saves through His agents? Or perhaps in this case, G-d works through His son. Let’s look at some verses for a better understanding.

Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. Christ was made of the very SAME flesh and blood as OURSELVES, in order that through his death he might destroy the power of death, and deliver those subject to bondage. -- So, according to the author of Hebrews, we find it is imperative that Yeshua be of the same flesh and blood as we ourselves, in order to provide proper atonement. Furthermore, It doesn't get much stronger than 'He', also', himself', likewise', 'partook of the same'. Our human nature is biased towards sin. Hebrews says of Yeshua that he, himself, likewise, partook of the same.

Romans 8: 3For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending His own Son in the LIKENESS of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us. -- Here Paul says that Yeshua was made in the likeness of sinful flesh, in order that he might condemn sin in the flesh, so that we might have access to righteousness. In other words, Paul is saying that it is imperative that Yeshua be of the SAME flesh and blood as ourselves, in order to provide proper atonement.

Ephesians 2: 15Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; 16And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: Here Paul tells us that the enmity between G-d and man was abolished in the flesh of Messiah, who, by his death on the tree, slew the enmity, so making peace and reconciling us to G-d. Again, Paul is making it clear that it was imperative for Yeshua to be of the same flesh and blood of ourselves, in order to provide proper atonement.

Scripture Says Yeshua Was 100% Man.

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Nowhere in scripture do we read that YHVH is a man. Instead, we find Yah to be immortal who can not die (1 Tim 1:17) and that he can not be tempted (James 1:13). On the other hand, in every instance of the bible we find that Yeshua was 100% man. Even trinitarians will agree that Yeshua is not equal to the Father, but somehow explain in a illogical way that he is G-d. The following verses should clear up any false indications that He was not fully man.

Acts 2: 22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: A MAN APPROVED OF GOD, by whom God did miracles. --Note that G-d is one person, and that He is separated from Yeshua, who is described as a man.

Acts 3: 22For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your BRETHREN, LIKE UNTO ME; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. -- Here Peter quotes Moses, who prophesied of Messiah. Also note the special attention that Moses prophesied that the Messiah would be of your BRETHREN, like unto me.

Acts 13: 22And when He had removed him, He raised up unto them David to be their king; to whom also He gave testimony, and said, I have found David the son of Jesse, a MAN after mine own heart, which shall fulfil all my will. 23Of this man’s seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus: -- Here is a parallel between David (the king raised up by G-d), and Yeshua (the saviour raised up by G-d). We are told specifically that David was a man in the same breath that Yeshua was 'of this man's seed'

1 Timothy 2:1 5For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. One God, one mediator between God and men - the MAN Christ Jesus. -- Note that G-d is one person, the mediator is another person, and that this mediator is a MAN.

October 21, 2008

Is Yeshua Deity or a Theophany?

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For many believers it hard to consider that Yeshua was not G-d incarnate, but rather a spokesman for the Almighty. John 17:3 clearly alludes to this,

"And this is life eternal, that they might know Thee, the only true God, and Messiah Yeshua, whom thou hast sent."

In this verse, Yeshua acknowledged himself to be merely a messenger, and not an integral part of the Deity. He was acting as an agent for Yehovah as a theophany. A theophany refers to either a visible or auditory manifestation of the YHVH. It is a combination of two Greek words, "theo" referring to deity and "phaino" meaning to shine or appear. The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion, Adama Books, New York, NY, 1986, pg.15. The angels that spoke the law were God's agents or representatives. As such, they had full authority to not only speak in His name, but to seemingly appropriate His name as in Ex.20:2; "I am Yehovah thy Elohim, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage." They were speaking exactly what Yehovah wanted them to say.We can see this further in many verses throughout the bible. For example, in Genesis 32:24 we read that Jacob wrestled with a man, and yet he saw G-d face to face. Later in Hosea 12:3,4 we find out that it was not G-d who wrestled with Jacob but an angel (messenger) of YHVH,

"He took his brother by the heel in the womb, and by his strength he had power with G-d: Yea, he had power over the angel, and prevailed.”

So do these two verses contradict each other? Did Jacob see the face of YHVH or an angel (messenger)? With a western thought process it sounds confusing but with a Hebrew mindset we can come to the conclusion that the angel (messenger) who wrestled with Jacob was not “G-d in the flesh” but a representative. This is the same principal Apostle John was teaching; he was not alluding to Yeshua being “G-d in the flesh” per se, but a perfect representation of what G-d’s is in holiness.

Another great example of "theophany" can be found in Exodus chap 3 and 4. Here we find a many descriptive verses which appear to be Moses talking to G-d through a burning bush. To confirm, Moses then asks who is speaking and the burning bush says, “I AM”. So was Moses actually talking directly to YHVH? According to Exodus 3:2 we find the burning bush as being an “angel of YHVH”, not G-d Himself.

YHVH often talks and appears to His people through theophany or through people and angels who are chosen to be a spokesman for Him. He does this because no man can look upon the face of YHVH and live. Consider the following verses;

Exodus 33:20 - "And He said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live."

John 1:18 - "No man hath seen Elohim at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared Him."

John 5:37 - "And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His shape."

John 6:46 - "Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of Elohim, he hath seen the Father."

1 Jn. 4:12 - "No man hath seen Elohim at any time. If we love one another, Elohim dwelleth in us, and His love is perfected in us."

1Tim 1:17 - "Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise Elohim, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen."

1 Tim.6:16 - " Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."

ref: http://www.torahofmessiah.com/theophanies.html
 

LOGOS - Messiah or the WORD? Part IV

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With all the evidence pointing to the word LOGOS as being the Divine plan/motive/thought of YHVH, we can more effectively translate the first 18 verses of John. As one can see, just like in the Greek, it is best to leave the "WORD" untranslated or simply left as LOGOS.

John 1-18

1. In the beginning was the Logos (Divine plan/motive/thought), and the Logos (Divine plan/motive/thought) was with God, and godlike was the Logos (Divine plan/motive/thought).
2. It (Divine plan/motive/thought) was with God in the beginning.
3. All things came to be through it, and without it nothing made had being.
4. In it was life, and the life was the light of mankind.
5. And that light shined in the darkness, and the darkness did not suppress it in any way.
6. There emerged a man sent forth from God; his name was John the Baptist.
7. He came to testify, to bear witness concerning the light (Divine plan/motive/thought), in order that through it everyone might put his trust in God and be faithful to Him.
8. Not that John himself was the light (Divine plan/motive/thought), but rather that he came in order to testify concerning the light.
9. The (Divine plan/motive/thought) was the true light that enlightens each and every human being entering into the world.
10. In the world it was (existing), for the world actually came into being through it, but the world did not realize it.
11. To that which was its own, it came, and those who were its own, did not accept it.
12. But whoever did take it and put their trust in it , to them it gave power to emerge as children of God; to those who were believing in His Name;
13. not as a result of one's bloodline, physical impulse or human intention, but because of God.
14. And the Logos (Divine plan/motive/thought) emerged as a human being. And HE dwelt (tabernacled) among us -- and we beheld with our eyes, His Sh'khinah (glory), the self-same unique Sh'khinah from the Father, full of grace and truth.
15. John testified concerning him. He cried out saying:"This is the MAN I was talking about when I said, 'The one after me comes before me, because he (God's plan of the coming Jesus) existed prior to me (my existence - forerunner to the Messiah).'
16. Likewise, extending out its (Divine plan/motive/thought) fullness, we have all received grace on top of grace.
17. For the Torah, through Moshe, was something given (passively); but grace and truth, through Jesus, actually came into being (actively)."
18. Now, God -- nobody has ever seen Him, ever. However, the only and unique Son, who is at the Father's side (in intimacy) can and has, for God has declared and explained.

LOGOS - Messiah or the WORD? Part III

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If we can understand that the logos is God’s expression, that is, His plan, purposes, reason and wisdom, it would clear up many mysteries “in the beginning.” Scripture says that God’s wisdom was “from the beginning” (Prov. 8:23). It was very common in Hebrew writing to personify a concept such as wisdom. No ancient Jew who read Proverbs would think that God’s wisdom was a separate person, even though it is portrayed as one in verses like Proverbs 8:29 and 30: “…when He marked out the foundations of the earth, I [wisdom] was the craftsman at His side.”

Most Jewish readers of the Gospel of John would have been familiar with the concept of God’s “word” being with God as He worked to bring His creation into existence. There is an obvious working of God’s power in Genesis 1 as He brings His plan into concretion by speaking things into being.

The Targums are well known for describing the wisdom and action of God as His “word.” This is especially important to note because the Targums are the Aramaic translations and paraphrases of the Old Testament, and Aramaic was the spoken language of many Jews at the time of Messiah. Remembering that a Targum is usually a paraphrase of what the Hebrew text says, note how the following examples attribute action to the word:

And the word of the Lord was Joseph’s helper (Gen. 39:2).
And Moses brought the people to meet the word of the L-rd (Ex. 19:17).
And the word of the Lord accepted the face of Job (Job 42:9).
And the word of the Lord shall laugh them to scorn (Ps. 2:4).
They believed in the name of His word (Ps. 106:12).

The above examples demonstrate that the Jews were familiar with the idea of God’s Word referring to His wisdom and action. This is especially important to note because these Jews were fiercely monotheistic, and did not in any way believe in a “Triune God.” They were familiar with the idioms of their own language, and understood that the wisdom and power of God were being personified as “word.”The logos, that is, the plan, purpose and wisdom of God, “became flesh” (came into concretion or physical existence) in Jesus. Jesus is the “image of the invisible God” (Col. 1:15) and His chief emissary, representative and agent. Because Jesus perfectly obeyed the Father, he represents everything that God could communicate about Himself in a human person. As such, Yeshua could say, “If you have seen me, you have seen the Father” (John 14:9). The fact that the logos “became” flesh shows that it did not exist that way before. There is no pre-existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative “existence” as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man.

It is a false analogy to say God came in the flesh as a human. God does not have attributes as a human nor should he be confined as a fleshy human. He is a spirit! 1 Tim 3:16 says, “God was MANIFEST in the FLESH”, meaning He was REVEALED -- made known unto man in the flesh by a human who was sinless in the “likeness” of Himself. . Not that Jesus was God, rather He was REVEALED in the FLESH through the representation of the Messiah.

Source: biblicalunitarian.com, Article John 1:!

LOGOS - Messiah or the WORD? Part II

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John 1:1-3In the beginning was the Divine plan/motive/thought, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was with God, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was God. The same (Plan) was in the beginning with God. All things were made by it and without it was not any thing made that was made.This makes perfect sense! In the beginning God had a Divine Plan. This Divine Plan was, of course, with God since it was His master plan conceived in His Divine Mind. The only information mankind has available to understand Gdd is His Torah (instructions - His Divine Plan). To say, the logos in John 1:1 is Yeshua makes no logical sense, as we will see below.

The Hebrew word 'dabar' corresponds with the Greek word 'logos'. 'Dabar' always refers to a spoken or written word or command in the Old Covenant Writings. See Psalm 119 for example, where 'dabar' / word is used extensively and always refers to the words spoken by God. Its the same with the New Testament with 'logos'. Look at all of the occasions where the word 'logos' appears and you'll see it refers to words that have been spoken or written. Substitute every occasion of Logos for 'Yeshua' and you have problems. The term 'Logos' is the ordinary word used for 'word' in the Greek. For example, in Matt 5:37, "Let your logos be ‘Yes, yes’ or ‘No, no.’"

If the 'WORD' in John 1 was to imply as the same 'Word of God' used elsewhere in the New Covenant Writings would this rendering sound correct in all instances? On the flip side, if we made a one time exception to say that the WORD in John 1 referred to the Messiah but all other instances refered to Gdd's spoken/written word would it be biblically correct?For instance, which definition of the word 'Logos' should we used when interpreting 2Pe 3:5? "for this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the Word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water." As one can see, it makes more sense in this passage to define 'Logos' as the Divine plan/motive/thought of God.

When John says, 'the word became flesh," he is speaking of the man through whom God was speaking and revealing his glory to the world. When it comes come to logic, there is no evidence supporting evidence that the word was Jesus (or even a person) BEFORE he was even born. In other words, what was 'the Word' BEFORE it 'became Jesus? Was 'the Word' Jesus before it became Messiah? Or was it the same 'Word of God' we read about everywhere else the Bible? When the Psalmist said, "By the Word of the God were the Heavens made," was he talking about Jesus or was he talking about God commanding the creation? We must consider this well before we even to try to understand the pagan trinity belief.

LOGOS - Messiah or the WORD? Part I

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The ancient Greeks, such as Aristotle defined logos as an argument from reason -- one of the three modes of persuasion. An argument based on logos needs to be logical, thus the term 'logic' derives from it. Jewish historian Philo, who lived just after the death of Yeshua (20 BC - 50 AD), used the term logos to mean the creative principle. Philo followed the Platonic distinction between imperfect matter and perfect idea. The logos was necessary, he taught, because G-d cannot come into contact with matter. He sometimes identified logos as divine wisdom (Jewish Encyclopedia).

The Greek translation for "logos" is Λόγος, which derives from the root word λεγ and appearing as λεγω.  We find this word used in the Septuagint, οἱ δέκα λόγοι,  which carries the meaning as "the ten words" found in Exodus 34:28.  It's original Greek meaning is expressed as to lay, then to pick up and regather; hence the thought process was meant to be defined as to regather the words and to speak forth.  It is a collection of inwards thoughts, a mindset or a view of belief expressed within words and then spoken outward.   We can compare this to Italian word, ragionare, which means to think and to speak. ( Ref:  http://www.bible-researcher.com/logos.html)

The rendering of "WORD" is completely illogical in the first chapter of John unless one is already predisposed to belief in the Trinity and intentionally biases the translation to support a "mysterious" inner meaning. The historic precedent mentioned earlier and the more clear rendering of Divine "plan" or "motive" or "thought" or "intent" makes far more sense and removes all mystery!

In Christology, the conception that Yeshua is the Logos ("word", "speech", or "reason") has been important in establishing the doctrine of Yeshua's divinity, as well as that of the Trinity, as set forth in the Chalcedonian Creed.The conception derives from the opening of the gospel of John: "In the beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was God." In the KJV, and most other English editions, Logos is translated as "Word", however in theological discourse, the word Logos is often left untranslated.

October 20, 2008

Defining Echad

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In the New Covenant writings the Greek word used for the concept of Echad is “henotes”, which means unity -- but more in the sense of a unanimous agreement rather than “one-ness”. The Hebrew concept of One-ness brings with it the idea of joining together organically -- literally growing together, creating inseparable union, completing and creating wholeness, which is one of the attributes of holiness. There doesn’t appear to be a word in Greek that properly translates the uniquely Hebrew concept of “echad”, so henotes is close, but no cigar.

The true form of Echad can better be defined in the Old Covenant writings; for instance, Genesis 2:24 states that Adam and Eve are to be “one flesh,” but what does it mean to be one flesh? Does it mean that Adam and Eve should be both 100% man and 100% woman? Of course not! It's like saying Adam and Eve are two distinct genders but yet they are one and the same. "One flesh" is simply a Hebrew expression to mean "unity" or “likeness.” The unity of a man and women in marriage is probably a great example of the Hebrew expression "one flesh,” meaning they are to be in unity with each other – that is, in spirit not in the physical.

The same principal applies to Yeshua and our Creator. Note what Yeshua states:

JOHN 17:20 "I do not pray for these alone, but also for those who will believe in me through their word; that they all may be ONE, as You, Father, are in me, and I in You; that they also may be ONE in us, that the world may believe that You sent me. And the glory which You gave me I have given them, that they may be ONE just as we are ONE: I in them, and You in me; that they may be made perfect in one, and that the world may know that You have sent me, and have loved them as You have loved me."

Here, we find Yeshua saying that he and the Father share a "oneness" – the Father was IN him, and he was IN the Father. He also states that we all as believers should unite in the same shared "oneness.”

The Hebrew word echad also carries a prominent meanings "unity," as the following verses clearly show:

JOHN 10:30 "I (Yeshua) and the Father are one [echad]." Meaning Yeshua and the Father in unity of one another not that they are one and the same deity.

GENESIS 11:6 And the LORD said, "Indeed the people are one [echad] and they all have one language, and this is what they begin to do; now nothing that they propose to do will be withheld from them." Speaking of the descendants of Noah who were building the Tower of Babel after the Flood, YHVH said that they were "one." Plainly echad here means that they were united in their desire to build the tower.

GENESIS 41:25 Then Joseph said to Pharaoh, "The dreams of Pharaoh are one [echad]; God has shown Pharaoh what He is about to do." Joseph told Pharaoh that the two dreams he had dreamed (seven fat cows eaten by seven skinny cows and seven plump heads of grain consumed by seven thin heads) were "one." That is, they were unified because they both had the same meaning -- the coming of seven years of good harvests and seven years of famine in Egypt.

JUDGES 20:1 So all the children of Israel came out, from Dan to Beersheba, as well as from the land of Gilead, and the congregation gathered together as one [echad] man before the LORD at Mizpah." Here we see the gathering of all the tribes of Israel together "as one man before YHVH at Mizpah." This Scripture speaks of a physical union of all the children of Israel in one place.

When did it ECHAD change? - Part II

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It might surprise many believers, but the fact remains that the Early Christain Church did NOT firmly state that Yeshua was G-d until the 4th and 5th century.

Below are some of the early Gentile Christian teachers who formed this doctrine. They were NOT Jewish believers who kept Torah nor did they know the Hebrew language or the Jewish customs. They taught with a Greek theology and never did think with a Hebrew mindset. These teachings were affirmed by the Roman Catholic church in 451 CE, at the Council of Chalcedon. See Part I.

(318 A.D.) Heresy of Arius– Taught that Christ was created by God and was a lesser god. Jesus is thus greater than humanity, but less than God, an intermediary being, semi-divine and semi-human.

(361 A.D.) Heresy of Apollinaris– Bishop of Laodicea. Taught that the one person of Christ had a human body BUT not a human mind or spirit, and that the mind and spirit of Christ were from the divine nature of the Son of God.

(382 A.D.) Heresy of Nestorius – Archbishop of Constantinople. Taught that Christ exists as two persons, the man Jesus and the divine Son of God, or Logos, rather than as two natures (True God and True Man) of one divine person. The doctrine is identified with Nestorius (c. 386- 451 A.D.),. It was his teachings that the two persons, the "Son of Man" and the "Son of God" or the Word were "linked" together in a perfect moral union. He also stated, "If anyone does not agree that holy Mary is Mother of God, he is at odds with the Godhead" (Letter to Cledonius the Priest 101 [A.D. 382]).

(449 A.D.) Heresey of Eutyches - Opponent of Nestorius – Eutyches accused Nestorius of dividing Jesus into two natures. In setting forth his alternative, he interpreted the church’s confession that Jesus was “one person” with idea that our Lord possessed only “one nature” (hence, “monophysitism”). As a result, Eutyches conceived Jesus as one in whom divinity and humanity mingled to form a new nature. When questioned by official church representatives, he confessed, “after the birth of our Lord Jesus Christ I worship one nature, viz, that of God made flesh and become man. Eutyches termed and insisted on Christ’s incarnate substance “one incarnate nature of God the Word.”

There you have it, in 451 A.D., during the council of Chalcedon, these men, along with 150 Gentile Roman Bishops, led the way to a new teaching and redefined the term Echad to a new definition - 2 enities equals 1 deity. Note, these guys did NOT define the godhead as 3 equals 1 as taught in Christianity today but taught that 2 equal 1 godhead. But even this teaching (two god theory) has a major flaw, that is, Elohim CANNOT DIE. Nowhere is there a single Biblical indication that the Creator Elohim of the Bible can die. And if G-d turned Himself into a human being who died, then that would mean that G-d died.

When did it ECHAD change? Part I

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שמע ישראל יהוה אלהינו יהוה אחד
Shema Yisrael Adonai Eloheinu Adonai Echad (ONE or ALONE).

It is often taught, both in Judaism and in Christianity, that our Creator is Echad (one), but the definition of Echad in each religion vastly differ from one another. Both religions however, do not take different viewpoints until generations AFTER the death of Yeshua. In fact, from the Old Covenant perspective, neither religion strays away from the same theology of a true Echad (ONE) G-d. That is, He is ONE. It was only several centuries AFTER the birth of Yeshua that the meaning of the ONE G-d started to take a different path.

In the 4th and 5th centuries paganistic ideas of the deity rose among the early Christians; this brought much attention to the so-called church fathers who then decided to add their own view on the deity subject. In 451 CE, at the Council of Chalcedon, it was decided what the "Catholic" position regarding the nature of Messiah would be. Here is what they decided:

“The Messiah is both fully God (deity) and fully man (human)!”

The council of Chalcedon, 451 states:

"Therefore, following the holy Fathers, we all with one accord teach men to acknowledge one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, at once complete in Godhead and complete in manhood, truly God and truly man, consisting also of a reasonable soul and body; of one substance [homoousios] with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time one substance with us as regards his manhood; like us in all respects, apart from sin; as regards his Godhead, begotten of the Father before the ages, but yet as regards his manhood begotten, for us man and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin, the God-bearer [Theotokos]; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, recognized in two natures, [en dyo physesin] without confusion, [asynchytos] without change, [atreptos] without division, [adiairetos] without separation [anchoristos]; the distinction of natures being in no way annulled by the union, but rather the characteristics of each nature being preserved and coming together to form one person and substance [hypostasis], not as parted or separated into two persons, but one and the same Son and Only-begotten God the Word, Lord Jesus Christ; even as the prophets from earliest times spoke of him, and our Lord Jesus Christ himself taught us, and the creed of the Fathers has handed down to us."