~
John 1:1-3In the beginning was the Divine plan/motive/thought, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was with God, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was God. The same (Plan) was in the beginning with God. All things were made by it and without it was not any thing made that was made.This makes perfect sense! In the beginning God had a Divine Plan. This Divine Plan was, of course, with God since it was His master plan conceived in His Divine Mind. The only information mankind has available to understand Gdd is His Torah (instructions - His Divine Plan). To say, the logos in John 1:1 is Yeshua makes no logical sense, as we will see below.
The Hebrew word 'dabar' corresponds with the Greek word 'logos'. 'Dabar' always refers to a spoken or written word or command in the Old Covenant Writings. See Psalm 119 for example, where 'dabar' / word is used extensively and always refers to the words spoken by God. Its the same with the New Testament with 'logos'. Look at all of the occasions where the word 'logos' appears and you'll see it refers to words that have been spoken or written. Substitute every occasion of Logos for 'Yeshua' and you have problems. The term 'Logos' is the ordinary word used for 'word' in the Greek. For example, in Matt 5:37, "Let your logos be ‘Yes, yes’ or ‘No, no.’"
If the 'WORD' in John 1 was to imply as the same 'Word of God' used elsewhere in the New Covenant Writings would this rendering sound correct in all instances? On the flip side, if we made a one time exception to say that the WORD in John 1 referred to the Messiah but all other instances refered to Gdd's spoken/written word would it be biblically correct?For instance, which definition of the word 'Logos' should we used when interpreting 2Pe 3:5? "for this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the Word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water." As one can see, it makes more sense in this passage to define 'Logos' as the Divine plan/motive/thought of God.
When John says, 'the word became flesh," he is speaking of the man through whom God was speaking and revealing his glory to the world. When it comes come to logic, there is no evidence supporting evidence that the word was Jesus (or even a person) BEFORE he was even born. In other words, what was 'the Word' BEFORE it 'became Jesus? Was 'the Word' Jesus before it became Messiah? Or was it the same 'Word of God' we read about everywhere else the Bible? When the Psalmist said, "By the Word of the God were the Heavens made," was he talking about Jesus or was he talking about God commanding the creation? We must consider this well before we even to try to understand the pagan trinity belief.
John 1:1-3In the beginning was the Divine plan/motive/thought, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was with God, and the Divine plan/motive/thought was God. The same (Plan) was in the beginning with God. All things were made by it and without it was not any thing made that was made.This makes perfect sense! In the beginning God had a Divine Plan. This Divine Plan was, of course, with God since it was His master plan conceived in His Divine Mind. The only information mankind has available to understand Gdd is His Torah (instructions - His Divine Plan). To say, the logos in John 1:1 is Yeshua makes no logical sense, as we will see below.
The Hebrew word 'dabar' corresponds with the Greek word 'logos'. 'Dabar' always refers to a spoken or written word or command in the Old Covenant Writings. See Psalm 119 for example, where 'dabar' / word is used extensively and always refers to the words spoken by God. Its the same with the New Testament with 'logos'. Look at all of the occasions where the word 'logos' appears and you'll see it refers to words that have been spoken or written. Substitute every occasion of Logos for 'Yeshua' and you have problems. The term 'Logos' is the ordinary word used for 'word' in the Greek. For example, in Matt 5:37, "Let your logos be ‘Yes, yes’ or ‘No, no.’"
If the 'WORD' in John 1 was to imply as the same 'Word of God' used elsewhere in the New Covenant Writings would this rendering sound correct in all instances? On the flip side, if we made a one time exception to say that the WORD in John 1 referred to the Messiah but all other instances refered to Gdd's spoken/written word would it be biblically correct?For instance, which definition of the word 'Logos' should we used when interpreting 2Pe 3:5? "for this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the Word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water." As one can see, it makes more sense in this passage to define 'Logos' as the Divine plan/motive/thought of God.
When John says, 'the word became flesh," he is speaking of the man through whom God was speaking and revealing his glory to the world. When it comes come to logic, there is no evidence supporting evidence that the word was Jesus (or even a person) BEFORE he was even born. In other words, what was 'the Word' BEFORE it 'became Jesus? Was 'the Word' Jesus before it became Messiah? Or was it the same 'Word of God' we read about everywhere else the Bible? When the Psalmist said, "By the Word of the God were the Heavens made," was he talking about Jesus or was he talking about God commanding the creation? We must consider this well before we even to try to understand the pagan trinity belief.
No comments:
Post a Comment